1. The early belief that living things arose
from non-living matter was first disproved
by
(a) A. I. Oparin
(b) Joseph Hooker
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Louis Pasteur
ANSWER.d
3. In the world production of natural rubber, India ranks
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
ANSWER.c
4. The principal action of the enterokinase present in the human intestinal juice is to
(a) hydrclyse casein into paracasein
(b) act at the terminal peptide bond of peptide chain to release the last amino acid
(c) convert pro-carboxypeptidase to
carboxypeptidase
(d) activate the typsinogen of the pancreatic juice
ANSWER.d
6. Match List I (Gas) with List II (Main
chemical composition) and select the corret answer using the codes given below the
Lists :
List I List II
A. Water gas 1. CH4
B. Producer gas 2. CO+H2
C. Coal gas 3, H2+CH4+CO
D. Gobar gas 4. CO+N2
Codes .•
(a)ABCD
4 2 l 3
(b)ABCD
2 4 3 l
(c) A B C D
4 2 3 1
(d) A B C D
2 4 I 3
ANSWER.d
7. Which one of the following plant hor»
mones can retard the ageing of plant organs
by controlling protein synthesis ?
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Auxin
(c) Cytokinin
(d) Gibberellin
ANSWER.d
8. Consider the following statements :
The arrival`of Babur into the Indian sub-
continent led to the
l. introduction of gunpowder in the sub»
continent
2. introductionof the arch and dome in the
region’s architecture
3. establishment of a Timurid dynasty in
the region
Which of these statements is/are correct 7
(a) l only
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
ANSWER.d
9. Which one of the following characteristics is NOT found in the convectional rainfall?
(a) Drizzling
(h) Lightning and thunder
(C) Torrential rain
(d) Afternoon rain
ANSWER.a
10. Consider the following statements re-
garding Indian polity :
1. In India, a Stateicannot have more than
500 members in its Legislative Assem~
bly
2. The Legislative Council of a State in
India cannot be larger in size than half
of the Legislative Assembly of that par-
ticular State
3. To be a member of State Legislative
Assembly, a citizen must not be less
than 25 yeas of age
4. The Governor of a State nominates the
Chairman for Legislative Council of
that particular State.
Which of these statements are correct
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(h) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l,2and4
(d) 1and3
ANSWER.d
11. In medieval India, during the reign of
Shivaji, the role of the official called
‘Chitnis’ was to
(a) be the in-charge of king’s personal
security guard
(b) be the in-charge of intelligence / espionage activity
(c) be the master of ceremonies in the royal court
(d) be assisting the king with his correspondence
ANSWER.a
12. Consider die following statements regarding different types of animals :
1. Cnidarians are acoelomate
2. All spunges (Porifera) are marine
3. Flatowarms (Platyhclminthes) can rc-
produce asexually
4. In arthropods, fertilization is always
internal
Which of these: statements is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
ANSWER.d
14. Bodies in the sky which are much
smaller than the planets but are having orbits between the Mars and Jupiter are known as
(a) Asteroids
(b) Comets
(c) Meteors
(d) Meteorites
ANSWER.a
15. Which one of the following is the largest country area wise
(a) Argentina
(b) India
(c) Kazakhstan
(d)‘ Sudan
ANSWER.b
16. Consider the following countries
1. Indonesia 2. Malaysia
3. Philippines 4. Thailand
In which of these countries the President
was impeached recently?
(a) l only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
ANSWER.a
17 . In a type of inflorescence, a cup shaped
involucres encloses a single female flower in
the centre and at number of male flowers
around this on short stalks. This type is
called ,
(a) Capitulum
(b) Cyathium
(c) Hypanthodium
(d) Verticillaster
ANSWER.b
18. ‘Annapurna’ Scheme launched by the
Government of India from April 2000 was
meant to provide food security to the
(a) rural poor living below the poverty line
(b) urban slum dwellers living below the
poverty line
(c) senior citizens not covered under
National Old Age Pension Scheme
(d) victims of natural calamities who are
forced to migrate to other areas
ANSWER.c
19. Mughal dynasty was to Bahadur Shah
Zafar as Lodi dynasty was to
(a) Bahlol Lodi
(b) Daulat Khan`Lodi
(c) Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Sikandar Lodi
ANSWER.c
20. Consider the following statements re-
garding human nutrition :
1. Spinach is a good source of vitamin A
2. Excess vitamin D in diet promotes high
calcium absorption
3. One of tl1e causes of pain in the joints
is vitamin C deficiency
4. Diarrhoea is one of the symptoms of
Pellagra
Which of these statement are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2,3and4
(d) 1,2,3and4
ANSWER.a
21. When a Bill is referred to a joint sit-
ting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament,
it has to be passed by
(a) a simple majority of members present
and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members
present and voting
(c) two—thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the total member•
ship of the Houses
ANSWER.a
22. Two bodies A and B are of same mass,
and same amount of heat is given to both of
them. If the temperature of A increases more
than that of B because of heat addition, then
(a) the specific heat capacity of A is more
than that of B
(b) the specific heat capacity of A is less
than that of B
(c) both A and B have the same specific
heat capacity but A has greater thermal conductivity
(d) both A and B have the same specific
heat capacity but B has greater thermal conductivity
ANSWER.b
23. Benzene reacts with chlorine in the
presence of an iron catalyst to produce
(a) benzene hexachloride
(b) benzyl chloride
(c) chloribenzene `
(d) benzoyl chloride
ANSWER.c
24. Yoweri Museveni is the President of
(a) Uganda
(b) Namibia
(c) Kenya
(d) Botswana
ANSWER.a
25. With reference to the colonial period
of India, the trade monopoly of the East India
Company was ended ly
(a) the Regulatory Act of 1773
(b). Pitt’s India Act of 1784 _
(c) the Charter Act of 1813 I
(d) the Charter Act of 1833
ANSWER.c
26. With reference to human body, which
one of the following statements is correct 7
(a) Lipases are insoluble in water
(b) Trypsin acts best in an acidic pH
(c) Pepsin action is enhanced in the duode•
num by the alkalinity
(d) Bile salts are steroids
ANSWER.d
27. A solid sphere, a disc and a ring of the
same mass and radius are allowed to roll
down a frictionless inclined plane simulta-
neously from the same height. In this con-
text, which one of the following statements
is correct ?
(a) The disc ruches down first
(b) The sphere reaches down first
(c) The ring reaches down first
(d) All of them reach down simultaneously
ANSWER.b
28. Consider the following substances :
l. Ascorbicacid
2. Folic acid
3. Nicotinic acid
4. Pantothenic acid
Which of these are vitamins ?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2and4
(d) 1and3
ANSWER.c
29. Anita’s mathematics test had 75 problems, i.e., l0 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 35 geometry problems. Although she answered
70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the geometry problems correctly she did riot pass the test because she got
less than 60% of the problems right. The number of more questions she would have needed to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing grade is
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
ANSWER.b
30. Which one of the following organisms is a fungus
(a) Staphylococcus
(b) Salmonella
(c) Clostridium
(d) Aspergillus
ANSWER.d
31 . Which one of the following human hor-
mones contains iodine ?
(a) Adrenalin
(b) Progesterone
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Thyroxin
ANSWER.d
32. Which one of the following is the semi-
dwarf high-yielding variety of Basmati rice
developed by India
(a) Sindhu
(b) Rathna
(c) Malika
(d) Kasturi
ANSWER.d
33. Consider the following statements with
reference to India :
1. India is the largest consumer of sugar
in the world
2. The issue price of sugar under PDS ms
raised to Rs .13 per kg in the Union
Budget 2000-2001
3. Uttar Pradesh contributes half of the
country`s sugar output
Which of these statements is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
ANSWER.c
34. When two ice cubes are pressed together, they join to form one cube. Which one of the following helps to hold them together
(a) Hydrogen bond formation
(b) Van der Waal forces
(c) Covalent attraction
(d) Dipole interaction
ANSWER.a
36. Consider the following incidents with
reference to the Civil Dsobedience Move-
ment during Indian freedom struggle :
1. Chittagong armoury raid
2. Refusal of a platoon of Garhwal regi-
ment to open fire on a batch of Khudai
Khidmatgars
3. Strike of textile workers in Sholapur
involving attacks on government buildings
4. Increase in the number of Muslim participants in it in all provinces
Which of these incidents caused alarm
among the British rulers ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1and4
(d) 1,2,3and4
ANSWER.b
37. A DC voltmeter is capable of measuring a maximum of 300 volts. If it is used to measure the voltage across a device operating at 220-volt AC supply, the reading of the voltmeter will be
(a) 300 volts
(b) 220 volts
(c) 110 volts
(d) 0 volt
ANSWER.d
38. When it is 12:00 noon in India, the
time in San Franciso (USA) would be close
to
(a) 11:30 p.m.
(b) 11:30 p.m. of previous day ’
(c) 8:30 p.m.
(d) 3:30 p.m. of previous day
ANSWER.b
39. The tax revenue as a percentage of
Gross ‘Iax Revenue is highest from
(a) Income Tax
(b) Corporation Tax
(c) Customs Duty
(d) Excise Duty
ANSWER.d
40. A person sitting in an open car moving
at constant velocity throws a ball vertically
upwards in air. If effect of air resistance is
neglected, the ball will fall
(a) exactly in the hands of the person
(b) outside the car
(c) in the car behind the person
(d) in the car ahead of the person
ANSWER.a
41. The escape velocity of an object from
the surface of the earth is 11.6 km/s. If the
mass’ of the earth is increased four times,
the resultant escape velocity would be
(a) (11.6 x 1/2) km/s
(b) 11.6 km/s
(c) (11,6 X 2) km/s
(d) (11.6 x 4) km/s
ANSWER.c
42. Match List I (Process of chemical
weathering of rock) with List II (Description) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List I List II `
A. Carbonation 1. Decomposition of materials containing lime,
potassium, etc.
B. Hydration 2. Minerals in rocks rust
C. Hydrolysis 3. Cause of additional stress in the rock
D. Oxidation 4. Decomposition of feldspars present in
many igneous rocks
Codes :
(a)ABCD
1 3 4 2
(b)ABCD
4 2 1 3
(c)ABCD
1 2 4 3
(d)ABCD
4 3 1 2
ANSWER.b
43. Which one of the following chambers
of human heart receives the deoxygenated
blood from the body
(a) Left Atrium
(b) Right Atrium
(c) Left Ventricle
(d) Right Ventricle
ANSWER.b
44. Gamma rays have
(a) zero mass and no charge
(b) zero mass and positive charge
(c) unit mass and zero charge
(d) unit mass and negative charge
ANSWER.a
45. With reference to the taxes in India
during the year 2000-2001, which one of
the following statements is correct 7
(a) Domestic companies had to pay tax surcharge at the rate of 15 percent
(b) Tax rebate of Rs 10,000 had been introduced for the women tax-payers
below 65 years of age
(c) Tax rebate for senior citizens had been increased from Rs 10,000 to Rs 30,000
(d) Non-agricultural income of farmhouses was made taxable
ANSWER.d
46. Which one of the following barrages
suplies water to the Indira Gandhi Canal ?
(a) Bhakra
(b) Harika
(c) Narora
(d) Pandoh
ANSWER.a
47. In India, the Comptroller-General of
Accounts presents a detailed analytical re•
view of Union Government Accounts to the
Finance Minister every
(a) year
(b) six months
(c) three months
(d) month
ANSWER.a
48. Which one of the following is NUT an
area of seismic activity ?
(a) Circum-Atlantic Ocean
(b) Circum-Pacific Ocean
(c) Circum-Indian
(d) Mid-Atlantic Ocean
ANSWER.c
49. Which one of the following statements
is correct ?
(a) Fishes eat only animal matter
(b) Heart is three-chambered in tadpoles
(c) All fishes have swim bladders
(d) Tadpoles have gills
ANSWER.d
50. Consider the following regarding the
defeat of Marathas in the third battle of
Panipat :
1. . Tacticalerrors by Sadashiv Rao Bhao
2. Superior generalship of Ahmad Shah Ahdali
3. Presence of a large number of non combatants in the Maratha army
4. Treachery of a commander, Ibrahim Kiran Gardi, of the Maratha army
Which of these were the causes of the defeat of Marathas
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1and4
(d) l,2,3and4
ANSWER.a
Sunday, August 29, 2010
Bank Of India Solved Paper Of General Awareness
Bank Of India Solved Paper Of General Awareness (held on 24-01-2010)
1. The President of the Palestine recently emphasized that his country will not resume peace talks until Israel fully halts settlement building in the—
(A) West Bank
(B) Haifa
(C) Gaza
(D) Tel-Aviv-Yafo
(E) Jerusalem
Ans : (A)
2. All the major world leaders gathered in Berlin in Nov. 2009 to mark the 20th anniversary of—
(A) European Union
(B) NATO
(C) Fall of Berlin Wall
(D) G-20
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Now almost all major newspaper journals and magazines are printing research reports giving the analysis and/or the causes of the sub-prime crisis which gripped America and the world a few months back. Which of the following was/were amongst the common cause(s) of the same ?
(They were present in almost all the economies)
(1) The problem was that investors erroneously believed property prices were quite predictable and built a whole edifice of financial planning on the back of the American housing market.
(2) Credit rating agencies all over the world were not equipped to forecast the effect of sub-prime crisis on world economy. Agencies were over-confident and did not react in time.
(3) Neither USA nor other countries took a note of the crisis in time. In fact they ignored it for quite some time.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)
4. If you see a big hoarding at a prominent public place, the punch line of which says ‘We All Were Born Free’; ‘We All Have Equal Rights’, in all probability, the hoarding is put up by—
(A) National Commission for Farmers
(B) National Human Rights Commission
(C) Directorate of Income Tax
(D) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(E) Union Public Service Commission
Ans : (B)
5. Nowadays we frequently read news items about ‘Derivatives’ as used in the world of finance and money market. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes what a derivative is and how it affects money/finance markets ?
(1) Derivatives enable individuals and companies to insure themselves against financial risk.
(2) Derivatives are like fixed deposits in a bank and are the safest way to invest one’s idle money lying in a bank.
(3) Derivatives are the financial instruments which were used in India even during the British Raj.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Many a time we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised a particular ratio/rate by a few basis points. What is basis point ?
(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point
(B) One hundredth of 1%
(C) One hundredth of 10%
(D) Ten per cent of 1000
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. Which of the following issues cannot come under the purview of the functioning of the Human Rights Commission of a country ?
(A) Racial Discrimination
(B) Treatment to Prisoners of War
(C) Human Trafficking
(D) Child Abuse
(E) Climate Migration
Ans : (E)
8. A prominent international weekly sometime ago printed a caption on its cover page which read ‘Brazil Takes Off’. Other major newspapers/magazines also printed similar stories/articles in their publications at that time. Why have magazines/newspapers decided to talk about Brazil these days ?
(1) All major economies of the world have been taking time to recover from the recession but Brazil was one of those which was ‘Last in and First out’.
(2) Brazil is a member of BRIC but unlike China it is a democracy, unlike India, it has no hostile neighbours, no insurgents and unlike Russia it exports more oil and arms and treats foreign investors with more respect.
(3) Brazil is the world’s second largest booming economy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)
9. Which of the following countries has conferred the honour of ‘Legion d’ honneur’ on Bharat Ratna Lata Mangeshkar ?
(A) Germany
(B) Norway
(C) Japan
(D) U.K.
(E) France
Ans : (E)
10. Expand the term NREGA—
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(B) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency
(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. The Rajya Sabha has recently cleared the new poll bill. Which one of the following amendment(s) is/are made in this bill ?
It has proposed -
(A) Increasing the security deposits to more than double
(B) Restricting the publication of exit polls
(C) Ensuring speedy disposal of electoral disputes
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A), (B) and (C)
Ans : (D)
12. The market in which long term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is commonly known as—
(A) Commodities Exchange
(B) Capital Market
(C) Bull Market
(D) Bullion Market
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
13. Which one of the following was India’s top destination for exports during 2009 ?
(A) UAE
(B) USA
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)
14. Which one of the following will be the first High Court in India, to implement the concept of ‘ecourts’ ?
(A) Delhi
(B) A.P.
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
15. Amongst the following, which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in Industrial Production Index ?
(A) Crude Oil
(B) Petro Refinery Products
(C) Electricity
(D) Coal
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
16. Amongst the following sectors, which sector/segment has shown the highest per cent growth in the current fiscal ?
(A) Mining
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Electricity, gas and water supply
(D) Banking and Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
17. As per the reports published in newspapers, India purchased around 200 tonnes of gold (almost half the quantity of gold put up for sale) in Sept. 2009. India purchased this gold from which of the following organizations ?
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) International Gold Council
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
18. World Trade Organisation (WTO)’s ministerial meeting was organized in which of the following cities recently ?
(A) Geneva
(B) Washington
(C) Paris
(D) Port of Spain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
19. In which one of the following countries, was the recent Commonwealth Meet (CHOGAM) held ?
(A) Trinidad
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Jamaica
(E) U.K.
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following decisions taken by the RBI will promote the concept of financial inclusion in the country ?
(A) To appoint some additional entities as business correspondents
(B) To collect reasonable service charges from the customer in a transparent manner for providing the services.
(C) To ask the banks to open at least 50 new accounts daily in non serviced areas.
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
21. For recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, the World Bank has decided to provide funds to India. These funds will be made available in the form of—
(A) Soft Loan
(B) Term Loan
(C) Emergency aid
(D) Grants
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. Citizens of which one of he following age-groups (in years) are covered under the New Pension System (NPS) ?
(A) 18–50
(B) 21–55
(C) 25–55
(D) 18–60
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ (RSBY) ?
(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households
(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households
(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural household
(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. Which one of the following had set up the N. R. Narayana Murthy Committee on issues relating to Corporate Governance ?
(A) SEBI
(B) RBI
(C) CII
(D) Ministry of Finance, GOI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. The proceeds of the disinvestment of profitable public sector units will be used for which of the following purposes ?
(A) Expansion of existing capacity of PSEs
(B) Modernisation of PSEs
(C) Opening of new PSEs
(D) Meeting the expenditure for various social sector schemes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. Which one of the following is the target fixed for fiscal deficit in the year 2010-2011 ?
(A) 3•5%
(B) 4•0%
(C) 5•5%
(D) 5•0%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
27. Which one of the following companies is the largest producer of natural gas in the country ?
(A) ONGC
(B) OIL
(C) Cairn India
(D) RIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Which one of the following states has sought a package of Rs. 500 crores ($ 100 million) for its Rural Poverty Reduction Programme ?
(A) M.P.
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) A.P.
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
29. Chinese objections have stalled the road work at the village of Demchok, on the Indian side of the line of control. In which one of the following states is this village located ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
30. Constitutionally, which one of the following can levy Service Tax ?
(A) Union Govt. only
(B) State Govt. only
(C) Union Territory Govt. only
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
31. In the proposed low cost pension scheme, which one of the following has been made responsible for maintaining of the records of pension account of an individual ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) National Securities Depositories Ltd. (NSDL)
(C) Stock Holding Corporation of India
(D) RBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
32. Which one of the following is/are implication(s) of large inflow of foreign exchange into the country ?
1. It makes monetary management difficult for RBI.
2. It creates money supply, asset bubbles and inflation.
3. It weakens the competitiveness of Indian exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
33. The Central Banks of which one of the following countries has offered $ 115 billion emergency credit to support its economy hit by falling prices and also to strengthen its currency ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) U.K.
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
34. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) The Golden Gate
(B) A House for Mr. Biswas
(C) 2 States
(D) White Tiger
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. NTPC Ltd. is in the process of exploring opportunities to source coal from overseas. In which one of the following countries has the NTPC identified two new coal mines ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Australia
(C) South Korea
(D) Indonesia
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
36. Which of the following organizations has raised its loan amount to India to make it US $ 7 billion in 2009-10 fiscal ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Bank
(D) European Union
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. Who amongst the following cricket players became the first to score 17000 runs in One Day Internationals ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) Stephen Fleming
(C) Ricky Ponting
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
38. The Govt. of India has decided to use the Core Banking System of banks to ensure proper usage of funds provided for which of its following programmes ?
(A) Literacy Mission
(B) Pradhanmantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) National Health Mission
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
39. Famous Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for exemplary work in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Literature
(C) Science & Technology
(D) Social Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
40. The Reverse Mortgage Scheme was launched by some organizations a few years back. This was done to help which of the following sections of society ?
(A) Beneficiaries of the NREGA
(B) People living Below Poverty Line
(C) Youngsters
(D) Senior Citizens
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
41. The organization of the South East Asian countries is known as—
(A) OPEC
(B) ASEAN
(C) NATO
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SAARC
Ans : (B)
42. ‘Miss Earth 2009’ title has been conferred upon—
(A) Alejandra Pedrajas
(B) Sandra Saifert
(C) Jessica Barboza
(D) Larissa Ramos
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
43. Which of the following countries became the third largest producer of Steel in the world in 2009 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Japan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
44. The Foreign Trade policy is announced recently by the Govt. of India. Which of the following ministries/agencies announce the same ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Export Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
(C) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(D) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
45. Irina Bokova has taken over as the Chief of the—
(A) ILO
(B) UNICEF
(C) OPEC
(D) UNO
(E) UNESCO
Ans : (E)
46. Dorjee Khandu has taken over as the Chief Minister of—
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Assam
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football ?
(A) Caddy
(B) Cutback
(C) Mid-on
(D) Love
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
48. Which of the following is considered a Non Food Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Bajra
(D) Rice
(E) Jute
Ans : (E)
49. Who amongst the following was the Prime Minister of Nepal immediately prior to Madhav Kumar Nepal ?
(A) Ram Baran Yadav
(B) Pushpakamal Dahal
(C) Girija Prasad Koirala
(D) Mahendra Kumar Suryavanshi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
50. The 10th India-European Summit was held in New Delhi in November 2009. Who amongst the following represented India and also chaired the same ?
(A) S. M. Krishna
(B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Manmohan Singh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
1. The President of the Palestine recently emphasized that his country will not resume peace talks until Israel fully halts settlement building in the—
(A) West Bank
(B) Haifa
(C) Gaza
(D) Tel-Aviv-Yafo
(E) Jerusalem
Ans : (A)
2. All the major world leaders gathered in Berlin in Nov. 2009 to mark the 20th anniversary of—
(A) European Union
(B) NATO
(C) Fall of Berlin Wall
(D) G-20
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Now almost all major newspaper journals and magazines are printing research reports giving the analysis and/or the causes of the sub-prime crisis which gripped America and the world a few months back. Which of the following was/were amongst the common cause(s) of the same ?
(They were present in almost all the economies)
(1) The problem was that investors erroneously believed property prices were quite predictable and built a whole edifice of financial planning on the back of the American housing market.
(2) Credit rating agencies all over the world were not equipped to forecast the effect of sub-prime crisis on world economy. Agencies were over-confident and did not react in time.
(3) Neither USA nor other countries took a note of the crisis in time. In fact they ignored it for quite some time.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)
4. If you see a big hoarding at a prominent public place, the punch line of which says ‘We All Were Born Free’; ‘We All Have Equal Rights’, in all probability, the hoarding is put up by—
(A) National Commission for Farmers
(B) National Human Rights Commission
(C) Directorate of Income Tax
(D) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(E) Union Public Service Commission
Ans : (B)
5. Nowadays we frequently read news items about ‘Derivatives’ as used in the world of finance and money market. Which of the following statement(s) correctly describes what a derivative is and how it affects money/finance markets ?
(1) Derivatives enable individuals and companies to insure themselves against financial risk.
(2) Derivatives are like fixed deposits in a bank and are the safest way to invest one’s idle money lying in a bank.
(3) Derivatives are the financial instruments which were used in India even during the British Raj.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
6. Many a time we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised a particular ratio/rate by a few basis points. What is basis point ?
(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point
(B) One hundredth of 1%
(C) One hundredth of 10%
(D) Ten per cent of 1000
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. Which of the following issues cannot come under the purview of the functioning of the Human Rights Commission of a country ?
(A) Racial Discrimination
(B) Treatment to Prisoners of War
(C) Human Trafficking
(D) Child Abuse
(E) Climate Migration
Ans : (E)
8. A prominent international weekly sometime ago printed a caption on its cover page which read ‘Brazil Takes Off’. Other major newspapers/magazines also printed similar stories/articles in their publications at that time. Why have magazines/newspapers decided to talk about Brazil these days ?
(1) All major economies of the world have been taking time to recover from the recession but Brazil was one of those which was ‘Last in and First out’.
(2) Brazil is a member of BRIC but unlike China it is a democracy, unlike India, it has no hostile neighbours, no insurgents and unlike Russia it exports more oil and arms and treats foreign investors with more respect.
(3) Brazil is the world’s second largest booming economy.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)
9. Which of the following countries has conferred the honour of ‘Legion d’ honneur’ on Bharat Ratna Lata Mangeshkar ?
(A) Germany
(B) Norway
(C) Japan
(D) U.K.
(E) France
Ans : (E)
10. Expand the term NREGA—
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(B) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency
(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
11. The Rajya Sabha has recently cleared the new poll bill. Which one of the following amendment(s) is/are made in this bill ?
It has proposed -
(A) Increasing the security deposits to more than double
(B) Restricting the publication of exit polls
(C) Ensuring speedy disposal of electoral disputes
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A), (B) and (C)
Ans : (D)
12. The market in which long term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is commonly known as—
(A) Commodities Exchange
(B) Capital Market
(C) Bull Market
(D) Bullion Market
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
13. Which one of the following was India’s top destination for exports during 2009 ?
(A) UAE
(B) USA
(C) Russia
(D) China
(E) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)
14. Which one of the following will be the first High Court in India, to implement the concept of ‘ecourts’ ?
(A) Delhi
(B) A.P.
(C) Chennai
(D) Kolkata
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
15. Amongst the following, which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in Industrial Production Index ?
(A) Crude Oil
(B) Petro Refinery Products
(C) Electricity
(D) Coal
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
16. Amongst the following sectors, which sector/segment has shown the highest per cent growth in the current fiscal ?
(A) Mining
(B) Manufacturing
(C) Electricity, gas and water supply
(D) Banking and Finance
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
17. As per the reports published in newspapers, India purchased around 200 tonnes of gold (almost half the quantity of gold put up for sale) in Sept. 2009. India purchased this gold from which of the following organizations ?
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) International Gold Council
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
18. World Trade Organisation (WTO)’s ministerial meeting was organized in which of the following cities recently ?
(A) Geneva
(B) Washington
(C) Paris
(D) Port of Spain
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
19. In which one of the following countries, was the recent Commonwealth Meet (CHOGAM) held ?
(A) Trinidad
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Jamaica
(E) U.K.
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following decisions taken by the RBI will promote the concept of financial inclusion in the country ?
(A) To appoint some additional entities as business correspondents
(B) To collect reasonable service charges from the customer in a transparent manner for providing the services.
(C) To ask the banks to open at least 50 new accounts daily in non serviced areas.
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
21. For recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, the World Bank has decided to provide funds to India. These funds will be made available in the form of—
(A) Soft Loan
(B) Term Loan
(C) Emergency aid
(D) Grants
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. Citizens of which one of he following age-groups (in years) are covered under the New Pension System (NPS) ?
(A) 18–50
(B) 21–55
(C) 25–55
(D) 18–60
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
23. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana’ (RSBY) ?
(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households
(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households
(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural household
(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
24. Which one of the following had set up the N. R. Narayana Murthy Committee on issues relating to Corporate Governance ?
(A) SEBI
(B) RBI
(C) CII
(D) Ministry of Finance, GOI
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. The proceeds of the disinvestment of profitable public sector units will be used for which of the following purposes ?
(A) Expansion of existing capacity of PSEs
(B) Modernisation of PSEs
(C) Opening of new PSEs
(D) Meeting the expenditure for various social sector schemes
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
26. Which one of the following is the target fixed for fiscal deficit in the year 2010-2011 ?
(A) 3•5%
(B) 4•0%
(C) 5•5%
(D) 5•0%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
27. Which one of the following companies is the largest producer of natural gas in the country ?
(A) ONGC
(B) OIL
(C) Cairn India
(D) RIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Which one of the following states has sought a package of Rs. 500 crores ($ 100 million) for its Rural Poverty Reduction Programme ?
(A) M.P.
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) A.P.
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
29. Chinese objections have stalled the road work at the village of Demchok, on the Indian side of the line of control. In which one of the following states is this village located ?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
30. Constitutionally, which one of the following can levy Service Tax ?
(A) Union Govt. only
(B) State Govt. only
(C) Union Territory Govt. only
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
31. In the proposed low cost pension scheme, which one of the following has been made responsible for maintaining of the records of pension account of an individual ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) National Securities Depositories Ltd. (NSDL)
(C) Stock Holding Corporation of India
(D) RBI
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
32. Which one of the following is/are implication(s) of large inflow of foreign exchange into the country ?
1. It makes monetary management difficult for RBI.
2. It creates money supply, asset bubbles and inflation.
3. It weakens the competitiveness of Indian exports.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
33. The Central Banks of which one of the following countries has offered $ 115 billion emergency credit to support its economy hit by falling prices and also to strengthen its currency ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Japan
(C) U.K.
(D) USA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
34. Which of the following books is written by Chetan Bhagat ?
(A) The Golden Gate
(B) A House for Mr. Biswas
(C) 2 States
(D) White Tiger
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
35. NTPC Ltd. is in the process of exploring opportunities to source coal from overseas. In which one of the following countries has the NTPC identified two new coal mines ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Australia
(C) South Korea
(D) Indonesia
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
36. Which of the following organizations has raised its loan amount to India to make it US $ 7 billion in 2009-10 fiscal ?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Bank
(D) European Union
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. Who amongst the following cricket players became the first to score 17000 runs in One Day Internationals ?
(A) Rahul Dravid
(B) Stephen Fleming
(C) Ricky Ponting
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
38. The Govt. of India has decided to use the Core Banking System of banks to ensure proper usage of funds provided for which of its following programmes ?
(A) Literacy Mission
(B) Pradhanmantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) National Health Mission
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
39. Famous Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for exemplary work in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Literature
(C) Science & Technology
(D) Social Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
40. The Reverse Mortgage Scheme was launched by some organizations a few years back. This was done to help which of the following sections of society ?
(A) Beneficiaries of the NREGA
(B) People living Below Poverty Line
(C) Youngsters
(D) Senior Citizens
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
41. The organization of the South East Asian countries is known as—
(A) OPEC
(B) ASEAN
(C) NATO
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SAARC
Ans : (B)
42. ‘Miss Earth 2009’ title has been conferred upon—
(A) Alejandra Pedrajas
(B) Sandra Saifert
(C) Jessica Barboza
(D) Larissa Ramos
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
43. Which of the following countries became the third largest producer of Steel in the world in 2009 ?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) USA
(D) Japan
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
44. The Foreign Trade policy is announced recently by the Govt. of India. Which of the following ministries/agencies announce the same ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Export Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
(C) Ministry of Foreign Affairs
(D) Ministry of Commerce & Industry
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
45. Irina Bokova has taken over as the Chief of the—
(A) ILO
(B) UNICEF
(C) OPEC
(D) UNO
(E) UNESCO
Ans : (E)
46. Dorjee Khandu has taken over as the Chief Minister of—
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Uttarakhand
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Assam
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Football ?
(A) Caddy
(B) Cutback
(C) Mid-on
(D) Love
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
48. Which of the following is considered a Non Food Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Bajra
(D) Rice
(E) Jute
Ans : (E)
49. Who amongst the following was the Prime Minister of Nepal immediately prior to Madhav Kumar Nepal ?
(A) Ram Baran Yadav
(B) Pushpakamal Dahal
(C) Girija Prasad Koirala
(D) Mahendra Kumar Suryavanshi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
50. The 10th India-European Summit was held in New Delhi in November 2009. Who amongst the following represented India and also chaired the same ?
(A) S. M. Krishna
(B) Pratibha Patil
(C) Pranab Mukherjee
(D) Manmohan Singh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Biology Sample Questions
Q. 1. Biological organisation starts with:
a. Atomic level
b. Submicroscopic molecular level
c. Cellular level
d. Organismic level
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
a. Atomic level
b. Submicroscopic molecular level
c. Cellular level
d. Organismic level
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 2. About 98 percent of the mass of every living organism is composed of just six elements including carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and:
a. calcium and phosphorous
b. phosphorus and sulphur
c. sulphur and magnesium
d. magnesium and sodium
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
a. calcium and phosphorous
b. phosphorus and sulphur
c. sulphur and magnesium
d. magnesium and sodium
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 3. Which one of the following is an example of negative feed back loop in humans?
a. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.
c. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. When the set point of hypothalamus is disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates vasodilation and sweating while in low temperature there is vasoconstriction and shivering. Correct choice: 2
a. Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot.
b. Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold.
c. Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles in to the eye
d. Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food.
Sol. When the set point of hypothalamus is disturbed by high temperature, it stimulates vasodilation and sweating while in low temperature there is vasoconstriction and shivering. Correct choice: 2
Q. 4. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
a. Homoiothermy
b. Seasonal migration]
c. Thick subcutaneous fat
d. Convergent evolution
Sol. Shark is poikilothermous. All three species show adaptations for aquatic life while these are not closely related. Correct choice: (4)
a. Homoiothermy
b. Seasonal migration]
c. Thick subcutaneous fat
d. Convergent evolution
Sol. Shark is poikilothermous. All three species show adaptations for aquatic life while these are not closely related. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 5. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
a. Phospholipids
b. Cholesterol
c. Glycolipids
d. Proline
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
a. Phospholipids
b. Cholesterol
c. Glycolipids
d. Proline
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 6. Select the wrong statement from the following:
a. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.
b. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain and inner and an outer membrane
c. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
d. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
a. The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria.
b. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain and inner and an outer membrane
c. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
d. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 7. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport system is the formation of:
a. Nucleic acids
b. ATP is small stepwise units
c. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
d. Sugars
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
a. Nucleic acids
b. ATP is small stepwise units
c. ATP in one large oxidation reaction
d. Sugars
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 8. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, the following is most likely to occur:
a. a skewed curve
b. a normal distribution
c. a bi-modal distribution
d. a T -shaped curve
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
a. a skewed curve
b. a normal distribution
c. a bi-modal distribution
d. a T -shaped curve
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 9. Which one of the following is a slime mould?
a. Anabaena
b. Rhizopus
c. Physarum
d. Thiobacillus
Sol. Physarum is an acellular slime mould. Correct choice: (3)
a. Anabaena
b. Rhizopus
c. Physarum
d. Thiobacillus
Sol. Physarum is an acellular slime mould. Correct choice: (3)
Q.10. For a critical study of secondary growth in plants, which one of the following pairs is suitable?
a. Wheat and maiden hair fern
b. Sugarcane and sunflower
c. Teak and pine
d. Deodar and fern
Sol. Secondary growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots. Correct choice: (3)
a. Wheat and maiden hair fern
b. Sugarcane and sunflower
c. Teak and pine
d. Deodar and fern
Sol. Secondary growth occurs in gymnosperms and dicots. Correct choice: (3)
Q.11. Which one of the following statements about Mycoplasma is wrong?
a. They cause disease in plants
b. They are also called PPLO
c. They are pleomorphic
d. They are sensitive to penicillin
Sol. Mycoplasma is not sensitive to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. Correct choice: (4)
a. They cause disease in plants
b. They are also called PPLO
c. They are pleomorphic
d. They are sensitive to penicillin
Sol. Mycoplasma is not sensitive to penicillin due to absence of cell wall. Correct choice: (4)
Q.12. In the prothallus of vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different times. As a result:
a. self fertilization is prevented
b. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. there is high degree of sterility
d. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Sol. In vascular cryptogam i.e. in pteridophytes gametophyte is monoecious but protandrous to avoid self fertilization. Correct choice: (1)
a. self fertilization is prevented
b. there is no change in success rate of fertilization
c. there is high degree of sterility
d. one can conclude that the plant is apomictic
Sol. In vascular cryptogam i.e. in pteridophytes gametophyte is monoecious but protandrous to avoid self fertilization. Correct choice: (1)
Q.13. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they:
a. have same number of chromosomes
b. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
c. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
d. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolities.
Sol. The members of a species are inter-fertile and produce fertile offsprings. Correct choice: (2)
a. have same number of chromosomes
b. can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds
c. have more than 90 per cent similar genes
d. look similar and possess identical secondary metabolities.
Sol. The members of a species are inter-fertile and produce fertile offsprings. Correct choice: (2)
Q.14. If you are asked to classify the various algae into distinct groups, which of the following characters you should choose?
a. Chemical composition of the cell wall
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
d. Structural organization of thallus.
Sol. The various algae are classified mainly on the types of pigments present in their cells. Correct choice: (2)
a. Chemical composition of the cell wall
b. Types of pigments present in the cell
c. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
d. Structural organization of thallus.
Sol. The various algae are classified mainly on the types of pigments present in their cells. Correct choice: (2)
Q.15. Flagellated male gametes are present in all the three of which one of the following sets?
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Sol. The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and those of pteriodophytes are multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. Correct choice: (1)
a. Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas
b. Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra
c. Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
d. Fucus, Marsilea and Calotropis
Sol. The male gametes of bryophytes are biflagellete, and those of pteriodophytes are multiflagellate, except Selaginella having biflagellate gametes. The male gametes of gymnosperms are non motile except those of Cycas having multiciliate gametes. Correct choice: (1)
Q.16. In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber represents:
a. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d. an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
Sol. In gymnosperms, below micropylar beak some of the cells of nucellus of ovule disintigerate to form pollen chamber. Correct choice: (3)
a. the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
b. a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms formed
c. a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
d. an opening in the mega gametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg.
Sol. In gymnosperms, below micropylar beak some of the cells of nucellus of ovule disintigerate to form pollen chamber. Correct choice: (3)
Q.17. Spore dissemination in some liverworts is aided by:
a. peristome teeth
b. elaters
c. indusium
d. calyptra
Sol. In some liverworts like Marchantia spore dispersal is due to hydrochasy and is aided by elaters. Correct choice: (2)
a. peristome teeth
b. elaters
c. indusium
d. calyptra
Sol. In some liverworts like Marchantia spore dispersal is due to hydrochasy and is aided by elaters. Correct choice: (2)
Q.18. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes?
a. Morchella and Mushrooms
b. Birds’ nest fungi and Pufballs
c. Pufballs and Claviceps
d. Peziza and Stink horns
Sol. Bird’s nest fungi – Cyathus, Pufballs – Lycoperdon, Both belong to the class Basidiomycetes. Correct choice: (3)
a. Morchella and Mushrooms
b. Birds’ nest fungi and Pufballs
c. Pufballs and Claviceps
d. Peziza and Stink horns
Sol. Bird’s nest fungi – Cyathus, Pufballs – Lycoperdon, Both belong to the class Basidiomycetes. Correct choice: (3)
Q.19. ICBN stands for:
a. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b. Indian Congress of Biological Names
c. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
d. International Congress of Biological Names
Sol. ICBN is one of the codes of nomenclature. It stands for International Code of Botanical Nomenclature. Correct choice: (3)
a. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature
b. Indian Congress of Biological Names
c. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature
d. International Congress of Biological Names
Sol. ICBN is one of the codes of nomenclature. It stands for International Code of Botanical Nomenclature. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 20. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of:
a. Claviceps
b. Phytophthora
c. Uncinula
d. Ustilago
Sol. Ergot of rye is caused by Claviceps purpurea. Correct choice: (1)
a. Claviceps
b. Phytophthora
c. Uncinula
d. Ustilago
Sol. Ergot of rye is caused by Claviceps purpurea. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 21. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed:
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Co-evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
a. Convergent evolution
b. Divergent evolution
c. Microevolution
d. Co-evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 22. Adaptive radiation refers to:
a. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
b. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
c. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
d. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
a. Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
b. Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
c. Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
d. Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 23. The living organisms can be unexceptionally distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of their ability for:
a. growth the movement
b. responsiveness to touch
c. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
d. reproduction
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
a. growth the movement
b. responsiveness to touch
c. interaction with the environment and progressive evolution
d. reproduction
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 24. The Finches of Galapogas islands provide an evidence in favour of:
a. Biogeographical Evolution
b. Special Creation
c. Evolution due to Mutation
d. Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
a. Biogeographical Evolution
b. Special Creation
c. Evolution due to Mutation
d. Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 25. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is:
a. Random creation of new species
b. No change in the isolation faunax
c. Preventing Speciation
d. Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
a. Random creation of new species
b. No change in the isolation faunax
c. Preventing Speciation
d. Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 26. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that:
a. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
b. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
c. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
d. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area.
Sol. It is an example of directional selection. Correct choice: (2)
a. Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
b. The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
c. The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
d. The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area.
Sol. It is an example of directional selection. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 27. The concept of chemical evolution is based on:
a. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
b. Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
c. Interaction of water, air and clay under
d. Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
a. Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
b. Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
c. Interaction of water, air and clay under
d. Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 28. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in:
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo erectus
d. Ramapithecus
Sol. Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680-720 c.c. & that of Homo erectus erectus 775-990 c.c, Homo erectus pekinensis 915-1200 c.c., Homo neanderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c. Correct choice: (c)
a. Homo habilis
b. Homo neanderthalensis
c. Homo erectus
d. Ramapithecus
Sol. Homo habilis had a cranial capacity in the range of 680-720 c.c. & that of Homo erectus erectus 775-990 c.c, Homo erectus pekinensis 915-1200 c.c., Homo neanderthalensis 1300-1600 c.c. Correct choice: (c)
Q. 29. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
a. Crocodile
b. Sea Urchin
c. Obelia
d. Lemur
-Chambered heart
- Parapodia
– Metagenesis
– Thecodont
(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and D
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
a. Crocodile
b. Sea Urchin
c. Obelia
d. Lemur
-Chambered heart
- Parapodia
– Metagenesis
– Thecodont
(1) Only A and B
(2) A, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) Only A and D
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 30. Select the correct statement from the following:
a. Mutations are random and directional
b. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
c. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
d. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrate.
Sol. It explains natural selection. Correct choice: (3)
a. Mutations are random and directional
b. Darwinian variations are small and directionless
c. Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
d. All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrate.
Sol. It explains natural selection. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 31. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?
a. Ventral heart
b. Post-anal tail
c. Ventral Central nervous system
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo
- Scorpion
- Octopus
– Leech
– Chamaeleon
Sol. Scorpion has dorsal heart. Post-anal tail is found only in chordates. Pharyngeal gill slits are present in the embryo of chameleon. Correct choice: (3)
a. Ventral heart
b. Post-anal tail
c. Ventral Central nervous system
d. Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo
- Scorpion
- Octopus
– Leech
– Chamaeleon
Sol. Scorpion has dorsal heart. Post-anal tail is found only in chordates. Pharyngeal gill slits are present in the embryo of chameleon. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 32. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
a. Ovoparity
b. Homoiothermy
c. Toothless jaws
d. Functional post -anal tail
Sol. Only birds & mammals are homoiothermous. Correct choice: (2)
a. Ovoparity
b. Homoiothermy
c. Toothless jaws
d. Functional post -anal tail
Sol. Only birds & mammals are homoiothermous. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 33. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish?
a. They all belong to the same phylum
b. They all have jointed paired appendages
c. They all possess dorsal heart
d. None of them is aquatic
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
a. They all belong to the same phylum
b. They all have jointed paired appendages
c. They all possess dorsal heart
d. None of them is aquatic
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 34. Which one of the following statement is correct?
a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b. Stem cells are specialized cells
c. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
d. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
a. Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
b. Stem cells are specialized cells
c. There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
d. All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 35. “Foolish Seedling” disease of rice led to the discovery of:
a. IAA
b. GA
c. ABA
d. 2, 4 – D
Sol. Foolish seeding disease (Bakane disease) of rice is due to a fungus Giberella fujikuroi. Yabuta and Sumuki obtained achemical from the fungus and called gibbrellic acid. Correct choice: (2)
a. IAA
b. GA
c. ABA
d. 2, 4 – D
Sol. Foolish seeding disease (Bakane disease) of rice is due to a fungus Giberella fujikuroi. Yabuta and Sumuki obtained achemical from the fungus and called gibbrellic acid. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 36. Passage cells are thin- walled cells found in:
a. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c. phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant parts.
d. testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination.
Sol. Passage cells also called transfusion tissue are found in the endodermis meant for rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle. Correct choice: (2)
a. central region of style through which the pollen tube grows towards the ovary.
b. endodermis of roots facilitating rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle.
c. phloem elements that serve as entry points for substances for transport to other plant parts.
d. testa of seed to enable emergence of growing embryonic axis during seed germination.
Sol. Passage cells also called transfusion tissue are found in the endodermis meant for rapid transport of water from cortex to pericycle. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 37. The first acceptor of electrons from an excited chlorophyll molecule of photosystem II is:
a. Quinone
b. Cytochrome
c. Iron-sulphur protein
d. Ferredoxin.
Sol. The first acceptor of electros from an excited chlorophyll is quinone. Correct choice: (1)
a. Quinone
b. Cytochrome
c. Iron-sulphur protein
d. Ferredoxin.
Sol. The first acceptor of electros from an excited chlorophyll is quinone. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 38. All enzymes of TCA cycle are located in the mitochondrial matrix except one which is located in inner mitochondrial membranes in eukaryotes and in cytosol in prokaryotes. This enzyme is:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Succinate dehydrogenase is a common enzyme for TCA and ETC. It is located on inner mitochondrial membrane. Rest of the TCA enzymes are present in mitochondrial matrix. Correct choice: (1)
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. lactate dehydrogenase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. malate dehydrogenase
Sol. Succinate dehydrogenase is a common enzyme for TCA and ETC. It is located on inner mitochondrial membrane. Rest of the TCA enzymes are present in mitochondrial matrix. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 39. The wavelength of light absorbed by Pr form of phytochrome is:
a. 620 nm
b. 640 nm
c. 680 nm
d. 720 nm
Sol. The Pr form of phytochrome receives red light (600-680 nm) and changes into Pfr. Correct choice: (3)
a. 620 nm
b. 640 nm
c. 680 nm
d. 720 nm
Sol. The Pr form of phytochrome receives red light (600-680 nm) and changes into Pfr. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 40. Opening of floral buds into flowers, is type of:
a. Autonomic movement of growth
b. Autonomic movement of locomotion
c. Autonomic movement of variation
d. Paratonic movement of growth.
Sol. Opening of floral bud into flowers, is due to epinasty, a type of autonomic movement of growth. Correct choice: (1)
a. Autonomic movement of growth
b. Autonomic movement of locomotion
c. Autonomic movement of variation
d. Paratonic movement of growth.
Sol. Opening of floral bud into flowers, is due to epinasty, a type of autonomic movement of growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 41. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched?
a. IAA – Cell wall elongation
b. Abscissic Acid – Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic Acid – Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin – Cell division
Sol. Leaf fall is due to interaction of auxin and ethylene. Correct choice: (3)
a. IAA – Cell wall elongation
b. Abscissic Acid – Stomatal closure
c. Gibberellic Acid – Leaf fall
d. Cytokinin – Cell division
Sol. Leaf fall is due to interaction of auxin and ethylene. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 42. One gene – one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in:
a. Diploccus pneumoniae
b. Neurospora crassa
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia Coli
Sol. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by Beadle and Tatum in red mould (Neurospora crassa). Correct choice: (2)
a. Diploccus pneumoniae
b. Neurospora crassa
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Escherichia Coli
Sol. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was given by Beadle and Tatum in red mould (Neurospora crassa). Correct choice: (2)
Q. 43. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of:
a. Microspore mother cell
b. Microspore
c. Generative cell
d. Vegetative cell
Sol. During the development of male gametophyte first of all two cells – generative cell and tube nucleus are formed from a pollen. This twocelled stage is called pollen grain. Finally the generative cell divides to form 2-male gametes. Correct choice: (3)
a. Microspore mother cell
b. Microspore
c. Generative cell
d. Vegetative cell
Sol. During the development of male gametophyte first of all two cells – generative cell and tube nucleus are formed from a pollen. This twocelled stage is called pollen grain. Finally the generative cell divides to form 2-male gametes. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 44. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure – 7atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be:
a. Movement of water of Cell A to B
b. Movement of water from Cell B to A
c. No movement of water
d. Equilibrium between the two
Sol. The direction of movement of water is from low to high DPD. Correct choice: (1)
a. Movement of water of Cell A to B
b. Movement of water from Cell B to A
c. No movement of water
d. Equilibrium between the two
Sol. The direction of movement of water is from low to high DPD. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 45. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of:
a. Epidermis
b. Mesophyll
c. Bundle Sheath
d. Phloem
Sol. In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells. Correct choice: (2)
a. Epidermis
b. Mesophyll
c. Bundle Sheath
d. Phloem
Sol. In C4 plants, C4 cycle occurs in mesophyll cells and C3 cycle in bundle sheath cells. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 46. Which of the following is a flowering plant with nodules containing filamentous nitrogen-fixing microorganism?
a. Cicer arietinum
b. Casuarina equisetifolia
c. Crotalaria juncea
d. Cycas revolute
Sol. The filamentous nitrogen – fixing microorganism like Frankia occurs in root-nodules of non-leguminous plants like Casuarina and Alnus. Correct choice: (2)
a. Cicer arietinum
b. Casuarina equisetifolia
c. Crotalaria juncea
d. Cycas revolute
Sol. The filamentous nitrogen – fixing microorganism like Frankia occurs in root-nodules of non-leguminous plants like Casuarina and Alnus. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 47. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
a. Pollen grain
b. Microspore mother cell
c. Male gamete
d. Egg
Sol. The microspore mother cells develops an internal layer of callose which breaks the plasmodesmatal connections among themselves. Correct choice: (2)
a. Pollen grain
b. Microspore mother cell
c. Male gamete
d. Egg
Sol. The microspore mother cells develops an internal layer of callose which breaks the plasmodesmatal connections among themselves. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 48. Which one of the following elements is not an essential micronutrient for plant growth?
a. Ca
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
Sol. Calcium is an essential macronutrient for plant growth. Correct choice: (1)
a. Ca
b. Mn
c. Zn
d. Cu
Sol. Calcium is an essential macronutrient for plant growth. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 49. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
a. Haemocytes
b. Serum albumins
c. Serum globulins
d. Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
a. Haemocytes
b. Serum albumins
c. Serum globulins
d. Fibrinogen in the plasma
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 50. Which one of the following is a fat -soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
a. Calciferol – Pellagra
b. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
a. Calciferol – Pellagra
b. Ascorbic acid – Scurvy
c. Retinol – Xerophthalmia
d. Cobalamine – Beri-beri
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 51. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide aerobically?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Unstriated muscle cells
d. Liver cells
Sol. RBCs do not have mitochondria & thus can respire only anaerobically. Correct choice: (1)
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Unstriated muscle cells
d. Liver cells
Sol. RBCs do not have mitochondria & thus can respire only anaerobically. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 52. Compared to a bull a bullock is docile because of:
a. lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
b. higher levels of thyroxin
c. higher levels of cortisone
d. lower levels of blood testosterone
Sol. The bullock is castrated and therefore secretion of testosterone is not adequate. Correct choice: (4)
a. lower levels of adrenalin / noradrenalin in its blood
b. higher levels of thyroxin
c. higher levels of cortisone
d. lower levels of blood testosterone
Sol. The bullock is castrated and therefore secretion of testosterone is not adequate. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 53. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of:
a. FSH only
b. LH only
c. Combination of FSH and LH
d. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
a. FSH only
b. LH only
c. Combination of FSH and LH
d. Combination of estrogen and progesterone
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 54. In human body, which one of the following is anatomically correct?
a. Cranial nerves
b. Floating ribs
c. Collar bones
d. Salivary glands
- 10 pairs
- 2 pairs
– 3 pairs
–1 pair
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
a. Cranial nerves
b. Floating ribs
c. Collar bones
d. Salivary glands
- 10 pairs
- 2 pairs
– 3 pairs
–1 pair
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 55. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Ciliated epithelium
c. Thrombocytes
d. Tendon
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Ciliated epithelium
c. Thrombocytes
d. Tendon
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 56. A drop of each of the following, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not coagulate?
a. Whole blood from pulmonary vein
b. Blood plasma
c. Blood serum
d. Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Blood serum does not contain fibrinogen and few other clotting factors, thus it will not coagulate. Correct choice: (3)
a. Whole blood from pulmonary vein
b. Blood plasma
c. Blood serum
d. Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system
Sol. Blood serum does not contain fibrinogen and few other clotting factors, thus it will not coagulate. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 57. Feeling the tremors of an earthquake a scared resident of seventh floor of a multistoryed building starts climbing down the stairs rapidly. Which hormone initiated this action?
a. Gastrin
b. Thyroxin
c. Adrenaline
d. Glucagon
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
a. Gastrin
b. Thyroxin
c. Adrenaline
d. Glucagon
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 58. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have:
a. less urea in his urine
b. more sodium in his urine
c. less amino acids in his urine
d. more glucose in his blood.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
a. less urea in his urine
b. more sodium in his urine
c. less amino acids in his urine
d. more glucose in his blood.
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 59. Which one of the following pairs of structures distinguishes a nerve cell from other types of cell?
a. Nucleus and mitochondria
b. Perikaryon and dendrites
c. Vacuoles and fibers
d. Flagellum and medullary sheath
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
a. Nucleus and mitochondria
b. Perikaryon and dendrites
c. Vacuoles and fibers
d. Flagellum and medullary sheath
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q.60. Which part of ovary in mam mals acts as an endocrine gland after evolution?
a. Vitelline membrane
b. Graafian follicle
c. Stroma
d. Germinal epithelium
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
a. Vitelline membrane
b. Graafian follicle
c. Stroma
d. Germinal epithelium
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 61. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
a. First positive, then negative and again back to positive
b. First negative, then positive and again back to negative
c. First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
d. First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
a. First positive, then negative and again back to positive
b. First negative, then positive and again back to negative
c. First positive, then negative and continue to be negative
d. First negative, then positive and continue to be positive.
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 62. A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorous metabolism in his body. Which one of the following glands may not be functioning properly?
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid
c. Parotid
d. Pancreas
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid
c. Parotid
d. Pancreas
Sol. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 63. Identify the odd combination of the habitat and the particular animal concerned:
a. Rann of Kutch
b. Dachigam National Park
c. Sunderbans
d. Periyar
- Wild Ass
- Snow Leopard
–Bengal Tiger
–Elephant
Sol. Dachigam National Park is for the conservation of Hangul. Correct choice: (2)
a. Rann of Kutch
b. Dachigam National Park
c. Sunderbans
d. Periyar
- Wild Ass
- Snow Leopard
–Bengal Tiger
–Elephant
Sol. Dachigam National Park is for the conservation of Hangul. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 64. In which one of the following the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order?
a. S < DE < PE < SE
b. SE < S < PE < DE
c. SE < PE < S < DE
d. PE < S < SE < DE
Sol. BOD of distillery effluent is 40,000 mg / l and that of paper mill effluent and sewage is 190 mg/l and 30 mg/l, respectively. Correct choice: (2)
a. S < DE < PE < SE
b. SE < S < PE < DE
c. SE < PE < S < DE
d. PE < S < SE < DE
Sol. BOD of distillery effluent is 40,000 mg / l and that of paper mill effluent and sewage is 190 mg/l and 30 mg/l, respectively. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 65. Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity?
a. Temperate deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Tropical deciduous forest
d. Temperate evergreen forest
Sol. Tropical rain forest has highest annual net primary productivity (9000 K cal / m 2 / yr). Correct Choice: (2)
a. Temperate deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest
c. Tropical deciduous forest
d. Temperate evergreen forest
Sol. Tropical rain forest has highest annual net primary productivity (9000 K cal / m 2 / yr). Correct Choice: (2)
Q. 66. Which one of the following is being utilized as a source of biodiesel in the Indian countryside?
a. Pongamia
b. Euphorbia
c. Beetroot
d. Sugarcane
Sol. Pongamia, Jatropa, Euphorbia are petrocrops. However, in the Indian countryside, Pongamia (Kanjar) is being utilized as a source of biodiesel. Correct choice: (1)
a. Pongamia
b. Euphorbia
c. Beetroot
d. Sugarcane
Sol. Pongamia, Jatropa, Euphorbia are petrocrops. However, in the Indian countryside, Pongamia (Kanjar) is being utilized as a source of biodiesel. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 67. In a coal fires power plant electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of:
a. CO
b. SO2
c. NOX
d. SPM
Sol. Electrostatic precipitators control emission of suspended particle matter (SPM). Correct choice: (4)
a. CO
b. SO2
c. NOX
d. SPM
Sol. Electrostatic precipitators control emission of suspended particle matter (SPM). Correct choice: (4)
Q. 68. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?
a. Sewage fungus
b. Sludge-worms
c. Blood-worms
d. Stone flies
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
a. Sewage fungus
b. Sludge-worms
c. Blood-worms
d. Stone flies
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 69. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in:
a. Predation on one another
b. Mutualism
c. Intra specific competition
d. Inter specific competition
Sol. Intra-specific competition occurs between the members of the same species. Correct choice: (3)
a. Predation on one another
b. Mutualism
c. Intra specific competition
d. Inter specific competition
Sol. Intra-specific competition occurs between the members of the same species. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 70. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of:
a. Ecosystem
b. Biotic community
c. Population
d. Landscape
Sol. Age structure is one of the characteristics of population. Correct choice: (3)
a. Ecosystem
b. Biotic community
c. Population
d. Landscape
Sol. Age structure is one of the characteristics of population. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 71. Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
a. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
b. Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
c. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
d. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
Sol. Lantana camara and Eicchornia czassipes (water hyacinth) are exotic species. Correct choice: (3)
a. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
b. Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
c. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
d. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
Sol. Lantana camara and Eicchornia czassipes (water hyacinth) are exotic species. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 72. One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of:
a. Nepenthes
b. Podophyllum
c. Ocimum
d. Garlic
Sol. Podophyllum hexandrum – : (Papri), gives a drug from its rhizome; besides being stimulant and purgative and has destructive action on cancerous tissues. Correct choice: (2)
a. Nepenthes
b. Podophyllum
c. Ocimum
d. Garlic
Sol. Podophyllum hexandrum – : (Papri), gives a drug from its rhizome; besides being stimulant and purgative and has destructive action on cancerous tissues. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 73. A genetically engineered micro-organism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of:
a. Bacillus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Trichoderma
d. Xanthomonas
Sol. Pseudomonas putida (superbug) developed by genetic engineering by Anand Mohan Chakravorty is used to control oil spills. Correct choice: (2)
a. Bacillus
b. Pseudomonas
c. Trichoderma
d. Xanthomonas
Sol. Pseudomonas putida (superbug) developed by genetic engineering by Anand Mohan Chakravorty is used to control oil spills. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 74. A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule binds to the:
a. Ribosome
b. Transfer RNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. DNA sequence
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
a. Ribosome
b. Transfer RNA
c. Messenger RNA
d. DNA sequence
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 75. The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth:
a. polymerize in the direction and explain DNA replication
b. result in transcription
c. polymerize in the direction and forms replication fork
d. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Sol. Replication occurs always in direction. Okazaki fragments, synthesized on DNA template, join to form lagging strand which grows in direction. Correct choice: (1)
a. polymerize in the direction and explain DNA replication
b. result in transcription
c. polymerize in the direction and forms replication fork
d. prove semi-conservative nature of DNA replication
Sol. Replication occurs always in direction. Okazaki fragments, synthesized on DNA template, join to form lagging strand which grows in direction. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 76. In the hexaploid wheat, the haploid (n) and basic (x) numbers of chromosomes are:
a. n = 21 and x = 7
b. n = 7 and x = 21
c. n = 21 and x = 21
d. n = 21 and x = 14
Sol. The basic number (x) of wheat is 7. Thus the 6x = 2n = 42 and n = 21. Correct choice: (1)
a. n = 21 and x = 7
b. n = 7 and x = 21
c. n = 21 and x = 21
d. n = 21 and x = 14
Sol. The basic number (x) of wheat is 7. Thus the 6x = 2n = 42 and n = 21. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 77. Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in transcription by:
a. Anticodon
b. RNA polymerase
c. Ribosome
d. Transcription factor
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
a. Anticodon
b. RNA polymerase
c. Ribosome
d. Transcription factor
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 78. Telomere repetitive DNA sequence control the function of eukaryote chromosomes because they:
a. prevent chromosome loss
b. act as replicons
c. are RNA transcription initiator
d. help chromosome pairing
Sol. Telomerase seal the ends of the chromosomes. Correct choice: (1)
a. prevent chromosome loss
b. act as replicons
c. are RNA transcription initiator
d. help chromosome pairing
Sol. Telomerase seal the ends of the chromosomes. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 79. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of:
a. codominance
b. chromosomal aberration
c. point mutation
d. polygenic inheritance
Sol. Inheritance of skin colour in human is controlled by three genes, A, B and C. Correct choice: (4)
a. codominance
b. chromosomal aberration
c. point mutation
d. polygenic inheritance
Sol. Inheritance of skin colour in human is controlled by three genes, A, B and C. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 80. A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is by:
a. crossing of one F1progeny with male parent
b. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
c. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
d. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies.
Sol. To find the genotype of hybrid, it is test crossed. Correct choice: (1)
a. crossing of one F1progeny with male parent
b. crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
c. crossing of one F2 progeny with female parent
d. studying the sexual behaviour of F1 progenies.
Sol. To find the genotype of hybrid, it is test crossed. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 81. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle – like structure. What is it’s DNA-binding sequence?
a. TATA
b. TTAA
c. AATT
d. CACC
Sol. The DNA binding sequence for RNA polymerase is called TATA box. Correct choice: (1)
a. TATA
b. TTAA
c. AATT
d. CACC
Sol. The DNA binding sequence for RNA polymerase is called TATA box. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 82. Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation will show:
a. Higher number of the parental types.
b. Higher number of the recombinant types.
c. Segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio.
d. Segregation in 3:1 ratio.
Sol. When the linked genes are situated quite close, the chances of crossing over are highly reduced. Due to this, large number of parental gametes are formed and only few recombinant gametes are formed. This results in higher number of parental types in F2 generation as compared to recombinants. Correct choice: (1)
a. Higher number of the parental types.
b. Higher number of the recombinant types.
c. Segregation in the expected 9: 3: 3: 1 ratio.
d. Segregation in 3:1 ratio.
Sol. When the linked genes are situated quite close, the chances of crossing over are highly reduced. Due to this, large number of parental gametes are formed and only few recombinant gametes are formed. This results in higher number of parental types in F2 generation as compared to recombinants. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 83. In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited by:
a. Inducing mutations.
b. Bombarding the seeds with DNA.
c. Crossing of two inbred parental lines.
d. Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
a. Inducing mutations.
b. Bombarding the seeds with DNA.
c. Crossing of two inbred parental lines.
d. Harvesting seeds from the most productive plants.
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 84. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with:
a. Deletion of genes
b. Developmental mutations
c. Differential expression of genes
d. Lethal mutations
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
a. Deletion of genes
b. Developmental mutations
c. Differential expression of genes
d. Lethal mutations
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 85. In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation?
a. 3 : 1
b. 50 : 50
c. 9 : 1
d. 1 : 3
Sol. This is a monohybrid test cross. Correct choice: (2)
a. 3 : 1
b. 50 : 50
c. 9 : 1
d. 1 : 3
Sol. This is a monohybrid test cross. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 86. The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated?
a. Through elimination of repetitive DNA.
b. Deletion of non-essential genes.
c. Super-coiling in nucleosomes.
d. DNAse digestion.
Sol. The nucleosome model explains the packaging of histone proteins and DNA in the chromatin material which forms the chromosome. Correct choice: (3)
a. Through elimination of repetitive DNA.
b. Deletion of non-essential genes.
c. Super-coiling in nucleosomes.
d. DNAse digestion.
Sol. The nucleosome model explains the packaging of histone proteins and DNA in the chromatin material which forms the chromosome. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 87. In cloning of cattle a fertilized egg is taken out of the mother’s womb and:
a. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced
b. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of others cows
c. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb other cows.
d. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media.
Sol. As per the experiment performed by the scientist from Japan. Correct choice: (3)
a. from this upto eight identical twins can be produced
b. the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells which are implanted into the womb of others cows
c. in the eight cell stage, cells are separated and cultured until small embryos are formed which are implanted into the womb other cows.
d. in the eight cell stage the individual cells are separated under electrical field for further development in culture media.
Sol. As per the experiment performed by the scientist from Japan. Correct choice: (3)
Q. 88. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
b. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
c. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
d. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
Sol. The Agricultural run off contains high concentration of chemical fertilizers. Which is discharge in near by lakes causes nutrient enrichment of lakes called eutrophication. Correct choice: (2)
a. At present it is not possible to grow maize without chemical fertilizers.
b. Extensive use of chemical fertilizers may lead to eutrophication of nearby water bodies.
c. Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules of plants.
d. Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are important mobilizers of phosphates and potassium for plant nutrition in soil.
Sol. The Agricultural run off contains high concentration of chemical fertilizers. Which is discharge in near by lakes causes nutrient enrichment of lakes called eutrophication. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 89. The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show?
a. The population of its predators increases enormously.
b. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
c. The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.
d. Its population growth curve is of J-type.
Sol. A population which grows exponentially and crashes suddenly exhibits J-type growth curve. Correct choice: (4)
a. The population of its predators increases enormously.
b. S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.
c. The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.
d. Its population growth curve is of J-type.
Sol. A population which grows exponentially and crashes suddenly exhibits J-type growth curve. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 90. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are:
a. semiconservative
b. parallel
c. discontinuous
d. antiparallel
Sol. The two chains in a dsDNA run in opposite direction one while other in opposite direction. Correct choice: (4)
a. semiconservative
b. parallel
c. discontinuous
d. antiparallel
Sol. The two chains in a dsDNA run in opposite direction one while other in opposite direction. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 91. A plant requires magnesium for:
a. Cell wall development
b. Holdin g cells together
c. Protein synthesis
d. Chlorophyll synthesis
a. Cell wall development
b. Holdin g cells together
c. Protein synthesis
d. Chlorophyll synthesis
Q. 92. Probiotics are:
a. Live microbial food supplement
b. Safe antibiotics
c. Cancer inducing microbes
d. New kind of food allergens
Sol. Live microbial food supplements are called probiotics (e.g., curd). Correct choice: (1)
a. Live microbial food supplement
b. Safe antibiotics
c. Cancer inducing microbes
d. New kind of food allergens
Sol. Live microbial food supplements are called probiotics (e.g., curd). Correct choice: (1)
Q. 93. Bowman’s glands are located in the:
a. olfactory epithelium of our nose
b. proximal end of uriniferous tubules
c. anterior pituitary
d. female reproductive system of cockroach
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
a. olfactory epithelium of our nose
b. proximal end of uriniferous tubules
c. anterior pituitary
d. female reproductive system of cockroach
Sol. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 94. Increased asthamatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:
a. Low temperature
b. Hot and humid environment
c. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
d. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
a. Low temperature
b. Hot and humid environment
c. Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
d. Inhalation of seasonal pollen
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 95. A human male produces sperms with genotypes AB, Ab, aB and ab pertaining to two diallelic characters in equal proportions. What is the corresponding genotype of this person?
a. AABB
b. AaBb
c. AaBB
d. AABb
Sol. The formula for gamete formation is 2n where n stands for number of heterozygous pairs. AaBb has 2 heterozygous pairs so it will form 4 types of gametes. Correct choice: (2)
a. AABB
b. AaBb
c. AaBB
d. AABb
Sol. The formula for gamete formation is 2n where n stands for number of heterozygous pairs. AaBb has 2 heterozygous pairs so it will form 4 types of gametes. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 96. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?
a. Coliforms
b. Methanogens
c. Yeast
d. Streptomycetes - Vinegar
-Gobar gas
–Ethanol
–Antibiotic
Sol. Coliforms are bacteria found in colon e.g. E. coli. For the preparation of vinegar Acetobacter aceti is employed. Correct choice: (1)
a. Coliforms
b. Methanogens
c. Yeast
d. Streptomycetes - Vinegar
-Gobar gas
–Ethanol
–Antibiotic
Sol. Coliforms are bacteria found in colon e.g. E. coli. For the preparation of vinegar Acetobacter aceti is employed. Correct choice: (1)
Q. 97. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?
a. Bombyx mori
b. Pila globosa
c. Apis indica
d. Kenia lacca -silk
-pearl
–honey
–lac
Sol. Pinctada vulgaris is a bivalve from which pearl is obtained. Correct choice: (2)
a. Bombyx mori
b. Pila globosa
c. Apis indica
d. Kenia lacca -silk
-pearl
–honey
–lac
Sol. Pinctada vulgaris is a bivalve from which pearl is obtained. Correct choice: (2)
Q. 98. Which one of the following is viral disease of poultry?
a. Pasteurellosis
b. Salmonellosis
c. Coryza
d. New Castle disease
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
a. Pasteurellosis
b. Salmonellosis
c. Coryza
d. New Castle disease
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 99. Ultrasound of how much frequency is beamed into human body for sonography?
a. 45 – 70 MHz
b. 30 – 45 MHz
c. 15 – 30 MHz
d. 1 – 15 MHz
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
a. 45 – 70 MHz
b. 30 – 45 MHz
c. 15 – 30 MHz
d. 1 – 15 MHz
Sol. Correct choice: (4)
Q. 100. Lysozyme that is present in perspiration, saliva and tears, destroys:
a. most virus-infected cells
b. certain fungi
c. certain types of bacteria
d. all viruses
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
a. most virus-infected cells
b. certain fungi
c. certain types of bacteria
d. all viruses
Sol. Correct choice: (3)
NMAT General Knowledge
NMAT General Knowledge Questions
Q. Gulliver’s Travels was written by-
Ans Gulliver’s Travels, (1726, amended 1735), officially Travels into Several Remote Nations of the World, is a novel by Jonathan Swift that is both a satire on human nature and a parody of the “travellers’ tales” literary sub-genre.
Ans Gulliver’s Travels, (1726, amended 1735), officially Travels into Several Remote Nations of the World, is a novel by Jonathan Swift that is both a satire on human nature and a parody of the “travellers’ tales” literary sub-genre.
Q. Match the following?
Ans Bacterial diseases- Tuberculosis Viral diseases- Polio, Poliomyelitis Protozoan diseases- Malaria Fungal diseases- Ringworm
Ans Bacterial diseases- Tuberculosis Viral diseases- Polio, Poliomyelitis Protozoan diseases- Malaria Fungal diseases- Ringworm
Q. Match the following-
Ans. Paper- Cai Lun Safety Pin- William Hurst Fountain Pen- L.E Waterman Safety Razor- King Camp Gillette or Kampfe Brothers
Ans. Paper- Cai Lun Safety Pin- William Hurst Fountain Pen- L.E Waterman Safety Razor- King Camp Gillette or Kampfe Brothers
Q. Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement?
Ans. CEPA will strengthen the economic ties between the two countries by including services in the free trade between the two countries.
Ans. CEPA will strengthen the economic ties between the two countries by including services in the free trade between the two countries.
Q. Prasar Bharati Bill?
Ans. Prasar Bharati is a statutory autonomous body established under the Prasar Bharati Act. The Board came into existence from 23.11.1997. The Prasar Bharati is the Public Service broadcaster of the country. The objective of public service broadcasting is to be achieved though All India Radio and Doordarshan which earlier were working as independent media units under the Ministry of I&B.
Ans. Prasar Bharati is a statutory autonomous body established under the Prasar Bharati Act. The Board came into existence from 23.11.1997. The Prasar Bharati is the Public Service broadcaster of the country. The objective of public service broadcasting is to be achieved though All India Radio and Doordarshan which earlier were working as independent media units under the Ministry of I&B.
Q. Where is the head office of National Statistical Commission?
Ans. New Delhi
Ans. New Delhi
Q. Garib Nawaz Express runs between….
Ans. Garib Nawaz Express, linking the pilgrim towns of Ajmer and Pushkar in Rajasthan with coastal southern India, would start running between Yashwantpur (Banglore) in Karnataka and Ajmer on a weekly basis from August 11.
Ans. Garib Nawaz Express, linking the pilgrim towns of Ajmer and Pushkar in Rajasthan with coastal southern India, would start running between Yashwantpur (Banglore) in Karnataka and Ajmer on a weekly basis from August 11.
Q. Which among the followings books does Bill Gates write?
Ans. Business at the speed of thought.
Ans. Business at the speed of thought.
Q. Which of the following companies won the prestigious award of “Best in Corporate Governance” (Golden Peacock Award) for the year 2006?
Ans. Private sector, Reliance Energy and Mahindra and Mahindra have bagged the Golden Peacock Corporate Governance Award for 2006. From the public sector, Hindustan Petroleum Corp Ltd (HPCL) and Oil and Natural Gas Corp (ONGC) were adjudged the winner for this year.
Ans. Private sector, Reliance Energy and Mahindra and Mahindra have bagged the Golden Peacock Corporate Governance Award for 2006. From the public sector, Hindustan Petroleum Corp Ltd (HPCL) and Oil and Natural Gas Corp (ONGC) were adjudged the winner for this year.
Q. In which year Cricket World Cup will be held in India
Ans. The 2011 Cricket World Cup will be the tenth time this tournament has been held, and will be held in the four Asian Test cricket playing countries Bangladesh, India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
Ans. The 2011 Cricket World Cup will be the tenth time this tournament has been held, and will be held in the four Asian Test cricket playing countries Bangladesh, India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
Q. Planning Commission is an …
Ans. Planning Commission is an Advisory body. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Planning Commission, which works under the overall guidance of the National Development Council. The Deputy Chairman and the full time Members of the Commission, as a composite body, provide advice and guidance to the subjectDivisions for the formulation of Five Year Plans, Annual Plans, State Plans, Monitoring Plan Programmes, Projects and Schemes.
Ans. Planning Commission is an Advisory body. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Planning Commission, which works under the overall guidance of the National Development Council. The Deputy Chairman and the full time Members of the Commission, as a composite body, provide advice and guidance to the subjectDivisions for the formulation of Five Year Plans, Annual Plans, State Plans, Monitoring Plan Programmes, Projects and Schemes.
Q. G-8 members-
Ans. G-8 Members are: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Russia, United Kingdom and United States of America. G-8 Summit 2006 held at St Petersburg, Russia.
Ans. G-8 Members are: Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Russia, United Kingdom and United States of America. G-8 Summit 2006 held at St Petersburg, Russia.
Q. Which of the following is not a financial institution?
a. IDBI
b. LIC
c. ICICI
d. IIPA
Ans. (d) choice is the answer IIPA is not a financial institution
a. IDBI
b. LIC
c. ICICI
d. IIPA
Ans. (d) choice is the answer IIPA is not a financial institution
Q. The miniature painting of music originated from which state?
Ans. The miniature painting of music belongs to Rajasthan.
Ans. The miniature painting of music belongs to Rajasthan.
Q. Who among the benefited at the time of inflation?
Ans. Debtors
Ans. Debtors
Q. Which of the following can declare an industrial unit sick.
Ans. BIFR- Board for Industrial & Financial Reconstruction deals with this issue.
Ans. BIFR- Board for Industrial & Financial Reconstruction deals with this issue.
Q. What is the defination of Zero hour?
Ans. Zero Hour denotes the time immediately following the Question hour in both Houses of Parliament. It starts at 12 noon. It came to be called an ‘Hour’ also because very often it continued for one full hour, until the House rose for lunch at 1 p.m. However, the duration of the Zero Hour has varied over the years. It is not possible to predict what kind of matters might be raised during Zero Hour, as there is no mention of any “Zero Hour” in the rules of the Parliament. It is the press who coined the term “Zero Hour” during the early 1960s, when the practice of raising urgent matters of public importance without prior notice developed.
Ans. Zero Hour denotes the time immediately following the Question hour in both Houses of Parliament. It starts at 12 noon. It came to be called an ‘Hour’ also because very often it continued for one full hour, until the House rose for lunch at 1 p.m. However, the duration of the Zero Hour has varied over the years. It is not possible to predict what kind of matters might be raised during Zero Hour, as there is no mention of any “Zero Hour” in the rules of the Parliament. It is the press who coined the term “Zero Hour” during the early 1960s, when the practice of raising urgent matters of public importance without prior notice developed.
Q. Election Commission does not conducts election for.
Ans. Prime Minister.
Ans. Prime Minister.
Q. Lotteries organized by government of the state comes under-
Ans. State List.
Ans. State List.
Q. Match the following-
Ans. a. Sabarigiri- hydroelectric project
b. Idukki- Thermal power station
Ans. a. Sabarigiri- hydroelectric project
b. Idukki- Thermal power station
Q. Har Gobind Khorana won the Nobel for the…
Ans. First synthesis of a gene.
Ans. First synthesis of a gene.
Q. Which of the following states benefited most from the Konkan Railway?
Ans. Maharashtra, Karnataka and Goa.
Ans. Maharashtra, Karnataka and Goa.
Q. ELISA test is done for-
Ans. AIDS
Ans. AIDS
Q. Which of the following is a set of official language of UNO?
Ans. The Organization uses six official languages in its intergovernmental meetings and documents, Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish; the Secretariat uses two working languages, English and French.
Ans. The Organization uses six official languages in its intergovernmental meetings and documents, Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish; the Secretariat uses two working languages, English and French.
Q. Match the following-
Ans. a. Distillation- is a method of separation of substances based on differences in their volatilities.
b. Galvanization- zinc is to coating of zinc over iron or steel
Ans. a. Distillation- is a method of separation of substances based on differences in their volatilities.
b. Galvanization- zinc is to coating of zinc over iron or steel
Q. Who among the following is not awarded Bharat Ratna Posthumously?
Ans. Right choice is Madan Mohan Malviya, he never won Bharat Ratna.
Ans. Right choice is Madan Mohan Malviya, he never won Bharat Ratna.
Q. Which of the following states initiated Kalasa-Banduri drinking water project?
Ans. Karnataka.
Ans. Karnataka.
Q. Which of the following state pin code can probably start with 6.
Ans. Kerela.
Ans. Kerela.
ONGC Graduate Trainee General Awareness Sample Questions
1. Women20-20 world Championship was Won By
(A)Australia
(B)England
(C)Pakistan
(D) India
(A)Australia
(B)England
(C)Pakistan
(D) India
2. Who is the Chairperson of Identification Authority of India (UIA)?
(A) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Nandan Nilekani
(C) B. Shreedharan
(D) M. N. Buch
(A) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(B) Nandan Nilekani
(C) B. Shreedharan
(D) M. N. Buch
3. Who won the 2009 Wimbledon ?
(A) Pete Samptas
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Roger Federer
(d) John McEnroe
(A) Pete Samptas
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Roger Federer
(d) John McEnroe
4. Which country has the largest Rail Network in the World?
(A)India
(B) U. K.
(C)China
(D) U.S.A.
5. Who is the Union Law Minister of India?
(A) Sharad Pawar
(B) Kapil Sibbal
(C) Verrappa Moily
(D) Hansraj Bharadwaj
6. The Birthday of Late Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, ‘President of India’, is celebrated as?
(A)Lawyer’s Day
(B)Teacher’s Day
(C) Children’s Day
(D)Father’s Day
7. Tirupati is in?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnatalca
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) MP
(A)India
(B) U. K.
(C)China
(D) U.S.A.
5. Who is the Union Law Minister of India?
(A) Sharad Pawar
(B) Kapil Sibbal
(C) Verrappa Moily
(D) Hansraj Bharadwaj
6. The Birthday of Late Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, ‘President of India’, is celebrated as?
(A)Lawyer’s Day
(B)Teacher’s Day
(C) Children’s Day
(D)Father’s Day
7. Tirupati is in?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnatalca
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) MP
8. Kanha National Park is situated in which State ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnatalca
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) MP
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Karnatalca
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) MP
9. River Narmada originates from?
(A) Bhedaghat
(B) Amarkantak
(C) Dindori
(D) Allahabad
10. Gandhiji started Dandi March in 1930
(A) Against atrocities committed on Harijarts
(B) Against imposition of Salt Tax
(C) Against the commencement of Communal Riot
(D) Against prohibition on Indian’s participating in elections
(A) Bhedaghat
(B) Amarkantak
(C) Dindori
(D) Allahabad
10. Gandhiji started Dandi March in 1930
(A) Against atrocities committed on Harijarts
(B) Against imposition of Salt Tax
(C) Against the commencement of Communal Riot
(D) Against prohibition on Indian’s participating in elections
11. Who is the author of “My Experiments with Truth”?
(A)Nehru
(B) Tagore
(C) Gandhi
(D) Jinnah
(A)Nehru
(B) Tagore
(C) Gandhi
(D) Jinnah
12. NASA refers to
(A) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(B) North Atlantic Space Agency
(C) North Airbase and Space Agency
(D) None of the above
13. I.S.O. 9000 is a?
(A) Quality Standard Mark
(B) Space Project
(C) Trade Technique
(d) None of these
(A) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(B) North Atlantic Space Agency
(C) North Airbase and Space Agency
(D) None of the above
13. I.S.O. 9000 is a?
(A) Quality Standard Mark
(B) Space Project
(C) Trade Technique
(d) None of these
14. Who among the following made a film on Mahatma Gandhi?
(A) Aparna Sen
(B) ShyamBenegal
(C) James Ivory
(d) Richard Attenborough
15. ‘Law Day’ is observed on
(A) 26th January
(B) 15th August
(C) 26th May
(d) 26th November
(A) Aparna Sen
(B) ShyamBenegal
(C) James Ivory
(d) Richard Attenborough
15. ‘Law Day’ is observed on
(A) 26th January
(B) 15th August
(C) 26th May
(d) 26th November
16. Which is the longest sea bridge in the country?
(A) Vidyasagar Sew, Kolkata
(B) Bandra-Worli Sea Link,Mumbai
(C) Bhakra-Nangal Project
(D) None of these
(A) Vidyasagar Sew, Kolkata
(B) Bandra-Worli Sea Link,Mumbai
(C) Bhakra-Nangal Project
(D) None of these
17. Dr. Rajendra Pachauri is a/an?
(A) Banker
(B) Industrialist
(C) Environmentalist
(D) Scientist
18. Who is the author of ‘Discovery of India’?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Indira Gandhi
19. D.N.A. refers to?
(A)Di-oxyribo Nucleic Acid
(B)Di-oxide Nucleic Acid
(C)Different Nucleic Acid
(D) None of these.
20. S.M.S. is?
(A)Short Messaging Sequence
(B)Short Messaging Service
(C)Short Manageable Service
(D)Short and Medium Service
(A) Banker
(B) Industrialist
(C) Environmentalist
(D) Scientist
18. Who is the author of ‘Discovery of India’?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Sarojini Naidu
(D) Indira Gandhi
19. D.N.A. refers to?
(A)Di-oxyribo Nucleic Acid
(B)Di-oxide Nucleic Acid
(C)Different Nucleic Acid
(D) None of these.
20. S.M.S. is?
(A)Short Messaging Sequence
(B)Short Messaging Service
(C)Short Manageable Service
(D)Short and Medium Service
21. Padma Bhushan Award is?
(A) Gallantry Award
(B) Bravery Award
(C) Civilian Award
(d), Literary Award
(A) Gallantry Award
(B) Bravery Award
(C) Civilian Award
(d), Literary Award
22. Which city is known as the ‘City of Joy’?
(A) Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C)Kolkata
(D) Chennai
(A) Delhi
(B) Mumbai
(C)Kolkata
(D) Chennai
23. Who won the ASHES Cricket Test Series held in year 2009?
(A)Australia
(B)England
(C)Pakistan
(D) None of these
(A)Australia
(B)England
(C)Pakistan
(D) None of these
24. Who appoints a Judge of a High Court?
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) President of i
(D) Chief Justice of India
(A) Governor
(B) Chief Minister
(C) President of i
(D) Chief Justice of India
25. Which of these animals is not shown in the National Emblem of India?
(A)Lion
(B) Horse
(C)Bull
(D) Elephant
(A)Lion
(B) Horse
(C)Bull
(D) Elephant
26. Which is the Mother State of Chhattisgarh?
(A) Bihar
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh
(A) Bihar
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh
27. Who won the men’s 100 m. final race at the recently held 2009 IAAF Athletics World Championship in Berlin?
(A) Tyson Gay of America
(B) Usain Bolt of Jamaica
(C) Asafa Powell of Jamaica
(D) Yang Yon Eun of South Korea
(A) Tyson Gay of America
(B) Usain Bolt of Jamaica
(C) Asafa Powell of Jamaica
(D) Yang Yon Eun of South Korea
28. The Finance Minister has pro posed replacement of the Income Tax Act by?
(A) The Finance Act, 2008
(B) The Direct Tax Act
(C) The Indian Taxation Code
(D) The Direct Taxes Code
(D) Indore
(A) The Finance Act, 2008
(B) The Direct Tax Act
(C) The Indian Taxation Code
(D) The Direct Taxes Code
(D) Indore
29. The Earth rotates around an axis pointing towards
(A) the moon
(B) the pole star
(C) the sun
(D) Venus
(A) the moon
(B) the pole star
(C) the sun
(D) Venus
30. Which one of the following aptly describes the generalised shape of the continents?
(A)Circular
(B) Hexagonal
(C)Rectangular
(D) Triangular
(A)Circular
(B) Hexagonal
(C)Rectangular
(D) Triangular
31.An Air India plane recently crashed at …….. Airport
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Mangalore
(D) Srinagar
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Mangalore
(D) Srinagar
32.Vikas Krishnan was in news Recently. He is a ?
(A) Boxer
(B) Writer
(C)Music Director
(D) Head of VIKAS NGO
(A) Boxer
(B) Writer
(C)Music Director
(D) Head of VIKAS NGO
33. During 1994-2007 grean house gas Emissions in India Fell By
(A) 25 percent
(B) 30 percent
(C) 35 percent
(D) 40 percent
34.First European Country to Ban Burqua is ?
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) UK
(D) Germany
(A) 25 percent
(B) 30 percent
(C) 35 percent
(D) 40 percent
34.First European Country to Ban Burqua is ?
(A) Belgium
(B) France
(C) UK
(D) Germany
Answers::
1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-C, 6-B, 7-A, 8-D, 9-B, 10-B, 11-C, 12-A, 13-A, 14-D, 15-D, 16-B, 17-C, 18-A, 19-A, 20-B, 21-C, 22-C, 23-B, 4-C, 25-D, 26-D, 27-B, 28 -D, 29-B, 30-D, 31-C, 32-A, 33-B, 34-A
General Awareness Questions For Bank PO Examinations
1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)
2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)
5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)
6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)
9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)
10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)
12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)
13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)
14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)
15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)
16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)
17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)
18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)
23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by
2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)
24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)
28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)
29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)
32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)
33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)
34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)
36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)
2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)
5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)
6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)
9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)
10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)
12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)
13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)
14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)
15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)
16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)
17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)
18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)
23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by
2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)
24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)
28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)
29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)
32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)
33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)
34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)
36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
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